Timeline for Linear regression shows b_0 negative while it is a positive quantity
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
4 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Dec 1, 2023 at 8:17 | comment | added | PS Nayak | This is the explanation I was looking for. | |
| Dec 1, 2023 at 7:01 | comment | added | Tomasz Witkowski | So, it depends. I wouldn't say that the y-intercept is meaningless (without it you couldn't fit your data well), but in some problems in some domains, like economics, its interpretation is meaningless. There are many situations when you are interested in the interpretation of the coefficient to conclude that "when x increases by 1, y increases by b_1 ceteris paribus" and then b_0 is meaningless in that term, but still must be present in the model to allow other variables fit well. | |
| Dec 1, 2023 at 4:48 | comment | added | PS Nayak | I appreciate your idea of solution. This is an example situation I provided for clarification of the negative b_0, that whether negative b_0 is permissible. In this video youtube.com/watch?v=WkVvZreJtmU&t=132s, the teacher says that the y-intercept is meaningless in many real world situations. In that case, the line can be anywhere along the y-axis. If so, then how it will predict y for an x? | |
| Nov 30, 2023 at 18:37 | history | answered | Tomasz Witkowski | CC BY-SA 4.0 |