The Hopkins statistics value close to '0' is also clusterable. Is this correct? Or the value should always be close to '1' for clusterable?
I don't think the Hopkins statistic is useful for this purpose at all.
It is essentially a test for a uniform distribution.
But not having a uniform distribution does not mean the data is suitable for cluster analysis.
For example a single Gaussian distribution (unimodal!) will score high on this test, but the data doesn't have multiple clusters but all points are from the same distribution.
One way to look for number of clusters is through VAT (Visual Assessment of Tendency), the reference you have provided: Alboukadel Kassambara also talks about that. This is a more frequently used measure by the machine learning community.
You can also explore Hierarchical tree and look for patterns of your interest.
At the end, it is subjective and application dependent.