Unlike lasso, ridge does not have zeroing coefficients as a goal, and you shouldn't expect applying ridge penalty to have this effect. So the answer to your title question is "no."
However, in your question body, you ask whether it is possible for the ridge penalty to produce a zero coefficient that was nonzero in an unpenalized solution. The answer here is "yes," but only as an incredible coincidence (which explains why the answer to the title question is no).
See the image in this answer (also floating around in plenty of other places). If the (unpenalized) error's contours happen to meet the constraint circle tangentially on one of the axes, that variable's coefficient will become zero. This would be an incredible coincidence, but it is theoretically possible. (Regularization can even switch the sign on the coefficient!)
I've put together a toy example to show this. GitHub/Colab notebook.
(In sklearn
, we're used to thinking about regularized regression in terms of the Lagrangian form; for these kinds of diagrams, it's perhaps better to think in the constrained optimization form. See the connection e.g. here)
Let $X=\begin{pmatrix}1 & 1 \\ \sqrt{5} & -\sqrt{5} \end{pmatrix}$, $y=\begin{pmatrix}3 \\ -\sqrt{5}\end{pmatrix}$. There is an exact solution, $y=X\begin{pmatrix}1\\2\end{pmatrix}$, so the unpenalized loss contours are (not axis-aligned) ellipses centered at $(1,2)$. When the L2 penalty coefficient $\lambda$ is 5, the solution is $(0,0.5)$. When $0<\lambda<5$, the solution has first weight positive, and when $\lambda>5$ the first weight is negative(! Taking this coefficient slightly negative allows us to decrease the second coefficient even smaller, lowering the overall penalty).