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I have a question about standardization (subtract mean, divide by standard deviation) of data consisting of different features with different ranges.

I read some information that seemed to be contradictory.

Standardization

  • does not alter the fundamental shape of the data
  • but it gives the data the properties of a normal distribution: mean of 0 and standard deviation of 1

So, does it change the normal distribution or not?

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No, standardization does not change the shape of the distribution. It centers the distribution by subtracting the mean and scales it by dividing by the standard deviation.

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  • $\begingroup$ thanks! It's strange that a lot of blog posts and the like state that standardization renders a distribution normal.. Do they have another definition of normal? $\endgroup$ – scarlett rouge Dec 15 '20 at 16:59
  • $\begingroup$ I'm not sure to be honest. Can you share a couple of those links? $\endgroup$ – LazyEval Dec 15 '20 at 18:01

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