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I have two datasets with which I want to do a Pearson correlation analysis. I have carried out the analysis which makes sense, however I want to be sure it is valid given that both datasets have values on different scales.

The features in both datasets are exactly the same (the actual samples are of course different). The range of values are as follows:

dataset1 = 3-20
dataset2 = 10-30

Now my understanding is that pearson correlation coefficient is not dependent on the change or difference in scale of the different datasets, however for all examples I have seen, although the scales are different, the lower value is always 0. As you can see though, the lower value on one dataset is 3 and the lower value on the other is 10. (in either case though they mean they same level of 'low', it is just how they are measured.

Can anyone confirm this is still fine?

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For quantitative-quantitative comparisons, scales generally do not matter in spearmean, pearson, and kendall correlation.

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