Just to expand on @Ankita Talwar answer and give some slightly more formal intuition you can write a linear model with to regressors and their interaction as follows:
$$ y = w_0 + w_1 x_1 + w_2 x_2 + w_3 x_1 x_2$$
where $x_1 x_2$ is the interaction term.
Now refactoring you can see that the interaction can be absorbed into the coefficient for $x1$ making it depend on $x_2$: $ y = w_0 + v_1(x_2) x_1 + w_2 x_2$, where now $v_1(x_2) = w_1 + w_2 x_2$ is a function that depends on $x_2$ (alternatively you can view the interaction as modifying $x_2$ coefficient).
So, when you add an interaction term you allow the coefficient value of one variable to vary depending on the value of the other variable. This operation only touches the coefficients not the variables themselves (so it doesn't say anything about them being collinear).
I guess your question might come from the term $x_1 x_2$ in the linear model, noticing that this term depends on $x_1$ (or $x_2$). If that is the case, please notice that $x_1 x_2$ would be collinear with, let say, $x_1$ if $x_2$ were a constant and not a variable (and viceversa). When both are variables (and of course provided the original variables are not linearly related) the interaction term is not collinear with any of the two variables.
However you might encounter some collinearity if one variable has a much smaller scale than the other one, in which case the interaction is mainly driven by the variable with the larger scale. This problem can be solved by standardizing your variables (which is anyway a good idea in regression problems).
Hope this clarifies a bit.
