Let $D={D_k}_1^N$ denotes a set of i.i.d observations, and x denotes random variables, p() denotes probability, whether $p(D|x)$ equals to $p(D)$? Thank you for any help.
EDIT: To be more clear, I talk this problem in Bayesian inference context where we seek the posterior distribution $p(x|D)~p(x)p(D|x)$, so D is dependent on x.